Difference between revisions of "Transverse traceless gauge"
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+ | From now on we consider only vacuum solutions. Suppose we use the Lorenz gauge. As shown above, we still have the freedom of coordinate transformations with $\square \xi^\mu =0$, which preserve the gauge. So, let us choose some arbitrary (timelike) field $u^\mu$ and, in addition to the Lorenz gauge conditions, demand that the perturbation is also transverse $u^{\mu}\bar{h}_{\mu\nu}=0$ with regard to it plus that it is traceless $\bar{h}^{\mu}_{\mu}=0$. Then $h_{\mu\nu}=\bar{h}_{\mu\nu}$ and we can omit the bars. In the frame of observers with 4-velocity $u^\mu$ the full set of conditions that fix the \emph{transverse traceless (TT) gauge} is then | ||
+ | \begin{equation} | ||
+ | \pa_\mu {h^{\mu}}_{\nu}=0,\quad | ||
+ | h_{0\mu}=0,\quad {h^{\mu}}_{\mu}=0. | ||
+ | \end{equation} | ||
+ | |||
+ | Simplest solutions of the vacuum wave equation are plane waves | ||
+ | \[h_{\mu\nu}=h_{\mu\nu}e^{ik_{\lambda}x^\lambda}.\] | ||
+ | Indeed, substitution into $\square h_{\mu\nu}=0$ yields | ||
+ | \[k^{\lambda}k_{\lambda}\cdot h_{\mu\nu}=0.\] | ||
+ | Thus | ||
+ | |||
+ | * either the wave vector is null $k^{\lambda}k_{\lambda}=0$, which roughly translates as that gravitational waves propagate with the speed of light, | ||
+ | * or $h_{\mu\nu}=0$, which means that in any other (non-TT) coordinate frame, in which metric perturbation is non-zero, it is due to the oscillating coordinate system, while the true gravitational field vanishes. | ||
+ | \end{itemize} | ||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | <div id="gw25"></div> | ||
+ | <div style="border: 1px solid #AAA; padding:5px;"> | ||
+ | === Problem 1: Transverse traceless (TT) gauge=== | ||
+ | Rewrite the gauge conditions for the TT and Lorenz gauge | ||
+ | \begin{enumerate} | ||
+ | \item in terms of scalar, vector and tensor decomposition; | ||
+ | \item in terms of the metric perturbation for the plane wave solution | ||
+ | \[h_{\mu\nu}=h_{\mu\nu}e^{ik_{\lambda}x^\lambda} | ||
+ | =h_{\mu\nu}e^{i\omega t-ikz}\] | ||
+ | with wave vector $k^{\mu}=(\omega,0,0,k)$ directed along the $z$-axis. | ||
+ | \end{enumerate} | ||
+ | <div class="NavFrame collapsed"> | ||
+ | <div class="NavHead">solution</div> | ||
+ | <div style="width:100%;" class="NavContent"> | ||
+ | <p style="text-align: left;">\begin{enumerate} | ||
+ | \item The two algebraic conditions are | ||
+ | \begin{align} | ||
+ | 0&=u^{\mu}h_{\mu\nu}=h_{0\nu}=(\Phi,-\mathbf{w});\\ | ||
+ | 0&=h^{\mu}_{\mu}=\Phi-6\Psi, | ||
+ | \end{align} | ||
+ | so we get in the new frame | ||
+ | \[\Phi=\Psi=0,\quad \mathbf{w}=0.\] | ||
+ | Then the remaining Lorenz condition is reduced to | ||
+ | \begin{align*} | ||
+ | &0=\pa_0 h^0_\nu +\pa_\alpha h^\alpha_\nu ;\\ | ||
+ | \nu=0:\quad& 0=0;\\ | ||
+ | \nu=\beta:\quad&0= \pa_{\alpha}{s^{\alpha}}_{\beta}, | ||
+ | \end{align*} | ||
+ | so it takes the form | ||
+ | \begin{equation} | ||
+ | \pa_{\alpha}{s^{\alpha}}_{\beta}=0. | ||
+ | \end{equation} | ||
+ | Thus the only remaining non-trivial component of the perturbation is the tensor one (the traceless part) $s_{\alpha\beta}$, and it is transverse, in the sense that for a plane wave solution $s_{\alpha\beta}\sim e^{i\,k_{\mu}x^{\mu}}$ the metric perturbation is transverse with respect to the wave vector: | ||
+ | \[k^{\alpha}s_{\alpha\beta}=0.\] | ||
+ | \item Transversality implies $h_{\mu 0}=0$, Lorenz gauge condition that $h_{\mu z}=0$, so the only non-zero components are $h_{xx},h_{yy},h_{xy},h_{yx}$. Of those only two are independent due to symmetry $h_{xy}=h_{yx}$ and tracelessness $h_{xx}+h_{yy}=0$. | ||
+ | \end{enumerate}</p> | ||
+ | </div> | ||
+ | </div></div> | ||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | So any plane-wave solution with $k^{\mu}=(\omega,0,0,k)$ in the $z$-direction in the TT gauge has the form | ||
+ | \begin{equation} | ||
+ | h_{\mu\nu}=\bordermatrix{ | ||
+ | ~&t&x&y&z\cr | ||
+ | t&0&0&0&0\cr | ||
+ | x&0&h_{+}&h_{\times}&0\cr | ||
+ | y&0&h_{\times}&-h_{+}&0\cr | ||
+ | z&0&0&0&0}e^{ikz-i\omega t}, | ||
+ | \end{equation} | ||
+ | or more generally any wave solution propagating in the $z$ direction can be presented as | ||
+ | \begin{align} | ||
+ | h_{\mu\nu}(t,z)&= | ||
+ | \bordermatrix{ | ||
+ | ~&t&x&y&z\cr | ||
+ | t&0&0&0&0\cr | ||
+ | x&0&1&0&0\cr | ||
+ | y&0&0&-1&0\cr | ||
+ | z&0&0&0&0}h_{+}(t-z) | ||
+ | +\bordermatrix{ | ||
+ | ~&t&x&y&z\cr | ||
+ | t&0&0&0&0\cr | ||
+ | x&0&0&1&0\cr | ||
+ | y&0&1&0&0\cr | ||
+ | z&0&0&0&0}h_{\times}(t-z)=\\ | ||
+ | &=e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}h_{+}(t-z) | ||
+ | +e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu}h_{\times}(t-z). | ||
+ | \end{align} | ||
+ | Here $h_{+}$ and $h_\times$ are the amplitudes of the two independent components with linear polarization, and $e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu},e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}$ are the corresponding polarization tensors. | ||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | <div id="gw26"></div> | ||
+ | <div style="border: 1px solid #AAA; padding:5px;"> | ||
+ | === Problem 2: Two polarizations=== | ||
+ | Show that $e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu}$ and $e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}$ transform into each other under rotation by $\pi/8$ | ||
+ | <div class="NavFrame collapsed"> | ||
+ | <div class="NavHead">solution</div> | ||
+ | <div style="width:100%;" class="NavContent"> | ||
+ | <p style="text-align: left;">The two-dimensional transformation matrix $\Phi$ for rotation by $\pi/4$ and the polarization tensors are | ||
+ | \[\Phi=(x^{\mu}_{,\nu})=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} | ||
+ | \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix},\quad | ||
+ | (e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}) | ||
+ | =\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&-1\end{pmatrix},\quad | ||
+ | (e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu}) | ||
+ | =\begin{pmatrix}0&1\\1&0\end{pmatrix}.\] | ||
+ | In matrix notation the second rank tensor transformation law is $e'=\Phi\Phi e$, and acting twice on each of the polarization vectors we have | ||
+ | \begin{align*} | ||
+ | \Phi\Phi e^{(+)}&=\frac12 \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | \begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&-1 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | =-\begin{pmatrix}0&+1\\1&0 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | =-e^{(\times)},\\ | ||
+ | \Phi\Phi e^{(\times)}&=\frac12 \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | \begin{pmatrix}0&+1\\1&0 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | =+\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&-1 \end{pmatrix} | ||
+ | =+e^{(+)}. | ||
+ | \end{align*}</p> | ||
+ | </div> | ||
+ | </div></div> | ||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | <div id="gw27></div> | ||
+ | <div style="border: 1px solid #AAA; padding:5px;"> | ||
+ | === Problem 3: Plane wave TT gauge transformation=== | ||
+ | Consider the plane wave solution of the wave equation in the Lorenz gauge: | ||
+ | \[\bar{h}_{\mu\nu} | ||
+ | =A_{\mu\nu}e^{i\,k_{\lambda}x^\lambda}, | ||
+ | \quad k^\mu k_\mu =0.\] | ||
+ | \begin{enumerate} | ||
+ | \item Show that the TT gauge is fixed by the coordinate transformation $x\to x+\xi$ with | ||
+ | \begin{align} | ||
+ | \xi_{\mu}&=B_{\mu}e^{ik_\lambda x^\lambda};\\ | ||
+ | B_{\lambda} | ||
+ | &=-\frac{A_{\mu\nu}l^\mu l^\nu} | ||
+ | {8i \omega^4}k_\lambda | ||
+ | -\frac{A^{\mu}_{\mu}}{4i\omega^2}l_\lambda | ||
+ | +\frac{1}{2i\omega^2}A_{\lambda\mu}l^\mu;\\ | ||
+ | &\text{where}\quad | ||
+ | k^\mu=(\omega,\mathbf{k}),\quad | ||
+ | l^{\mu}=(\omega,-\mathbf{k}). | ||
+ | \end{align} | ||
+ | [Padm. p \textsection 9.3, p.403 (wrong signs!), also see MTW Ex.35.1 for similar formulation; \emph{the solution can probably be derived if we introduce the null frame $k$ and $l$ (the other two spacial basis vectors are not needed) and look for solution in the form | ||
+ | $B=C_1 k+ C_2 l +C_{3} w$.}] | ||
+ | \item What is the transformation to the Lorenz gauge for arbitrary gravitational wave in vacuum? | ||
+ | \end{enumerate} | ||
+ | <div class="NavFrame collapsed"> | ||
+ | <div class="NavHead">solution</div> | ||
+ | <div style="width:100%;" class="NavContent"> | ||
+ | <p style="text-align: left;">\begin{enumerate} | ||
+ | \item The gauge transformation for $\bar{h}_{\mu\nu}$ and therefore $A_{\mu\nu}$ is | ||
+ | \[A_{\mu\nu}\to A_{\mu\nu}' | ||
+ | =A_{\mu\nu}-2\pa_{(\mu}\xi_{\nu)} | ||
+ | +\eta_{\mu\nu}\pa_{\lambda}\xi^\lambda,\] | ||
+ | so | ||
+ | \begin{equation} | ||
+ | A_{\mu\nu}\to A_{\mu\nu}' | ||
+ | =A_{\mu\nu}-2ik_{(\mu}B_{\nu)} | ||
+ | +i\eta_{\mu\nu}k_{\lambda}B^\lambda, | ||
+ | \end{equation} | ||
+ | and the TT gauge conditions take the form | ||
+ | \begin{align} | ||
+ | 0&={{A'}^{\mu}}_{\mu}={A^{\mu}}_{\mu}+2ik^\mu B_\mu;\\ | ||
+ | 0&={A'}_{0\;\mu}=A_{0\mu}-ik_0 B_{\mu} | ||
+ | -ik_\mu B_0 +i\delta^0_\mu \; k_\lambda B^\lambda. | ||
+ | \end{align} | ||
+ | Also remember that Lorenz gauge implies $k_{\mu}A^{\mu\nu}=0$, thus $k^{\alpha}A_{\alpha\mu}=-\omega A_{0\mu}$, and therefore | ||
+ | \begin{equation} | ||
+ | l^{\mu}k_{\mu}=2\omega^2,\quad | ||
+ | A_{\mu\nu}l^{\mu}=2\omega A_{0\mu},\quad | ||
+ | k^{\lambda}B_{\lambda} | ||
+ | =-\frac{1}{2i}{A^{\lambda}}_{\lambda}. | ||
+ | \end{equation} | ||
+ | Plugging this into the gauge conditions, one can see that the first one (tracelessness) is obeyed immediately, and the second one (transversality) after a little bit of more algebra. | ||
+ | \item The general first-order vacuum solution of Einstein's equations in the Lorenz gauge can be presented through its spatial Fourier transform (temporal part is integrated over due to fixed dispersion relation) | ||
+ | \[h_{\mu\nu}(x)=\int d^{3}k h_{\mu\nu}(\mathbf{k}) | ||
+ | e^{ik_{\lambda}x^{\lambda}},\quad\text{with}\quad | ||
+ | k^\mu k_\mu =0,\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad | ||
+ | k_{0}^{2}\equiv \omega^2 =\mathbf{k}^2.\] | ||
+ | Then the TT gauge will be fixed by the coordinate fransformation | ||
+ | \[\xi^\mu =\int d^{3}k B^{\mu}[h_{\mu\nu}(\mathbf{k})] | ||
+ | e^{ik_{\lambda}x^{\lambda}}.\] | ||
+ | Working with individual plane-wave solutions is equivalent to working in the full Fourier space. | ||
+ | \end{enumerate}</p> | ||
+ | </div> | ||
+ | </div></div> | ||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | <div id="gw28></div> | ||
+ | <div style="border: 1px solid #AAA; padding:5px;"> | ||
+ | === Problem 3: Curvature of a plane wave=== | ||
+ | Consider the plane-wave solution, in which | ||
+ | \[R_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma} | ||
+ | =C_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma}e^{ik_{\lambda}x^{\lambda}}.\] | ||
+ | \begin{enumerate} | ||
+ | \item Using the Bianchi identity, show that all components of the curvature tensor can be expressed through $R_{0\alpha0\beta}$; | ||
+ | \item Show that in the coordinate frame such that $k^\mu =(k,0,0,k)$ is directed along the $z$-axis the only possible nonzero components are $R_{0x0x}$, $R_{0y0y}$ and $R_{0x0y}$, obeying $R_{0x0x}=-R_{0y0y}$, leaving only two independent non-zero components; | ||
+ | \item in the TT gauge (denoted by the superscript $TT$) | ||
+ | \[R_{0\alpha 0\beta} | ||
+ | =-\tfrac{1}{2}\pa_0^2 g_{\alpha\beta}^{TT};\] | ||
+ | \end{enumerate} | ||
+ | [based on Padm p403]. | ||
+ | <div class="NavFrame collapsed"> | ||
+ | <div class="NavHead">solution</div> | ||
+ | <div style="width:100%;" class="NavContent"> | ||
+ | <p style="text-align: left;">\begin{enumerate} | ||
+ | \item The covariant derivatives in the Bianchi identity | ||
+ | \[R_{abcd;e}+R_{abec;d}+R_{abde;c}=0\] | ||
+ | in the first order can be replaced by partial derivatives. Then for a plane-wave solution | ||
+ | \[k_{e}R_{abcd}+k_{d}R_{abec}+k_{c}R_{abde}=0.\] | ||
+ | By setting $\{eabcd\}=\{0\alpha 0\beta \gamma\}$ we get ($k_0\equiv \omega \neq 0$ for a null vector) | ||
+ | \[R_{\alpha 0\beta \gamma} | ||
+ | =-\frac{k_\beta}{\omega}R_{\alpha 0\gamma 0} | ||
+ | +\frac{k_\gamma}{\omega}R_{\alpha 0\beta 0},\] | ||
+ | and by setting $\{eabcd\}=\{0\alpha \beta \gamma\delta \}$ and using the previous result, that | ||
+ | \[R_{\alpha\beta\gamma\delta}= | ||
+ | \frac{k_\alpha k_\gamma}{\omega^2} | ||
+ | R_{0\beta 0\gamma} | ||
+ | +\big(\text{three terms restored by symmetry}\big).\] | ||
+ | \item From vacuum Einstein equations | ||
+ | \[0=R^{\lambda \mu\lambda \nu} | ||
+ | =R_{0\mu 0\nu}-R_{\alpha\mu\alpha\nu},\] | ||
+ | expressing everything through $R_{0\alpha 0\beta}$, we get | ||
+ | \begin{align} | ||
+ | 00:&\quad R_{0\alpha 0\alpha}=0;\\ | ||
+ | 0\beta:&\quad k_{\alpha} R_{0\alpha 0\beta}=0;\\ | ||
+ | \beta\gamma:&\quad 0=0. | ||
+ | \end{align} | ||
+ | The $00$ equation translates to the wave being traceless, and the $0\beta$ equation to it being transverse: in the chosen frame | ||
+ | \[R_{0x0x}+R_{0y0y}=0,\qquad R_{0z0\alpha}=0.\] | ||
+ | \item In the TT gauge $g_{00}$ and $g_{0\alpha}$ are zero, so in the first order | ||
+ | \[R_{0\alpha 0\beta}=\frac{1}{2}\big( | ||
+ | \pa_0 \pa_\beta g_{0\alpha} | ||
+ | +\pa_\alpha \pa_0 g_{0\beta} | ||
+ | -\pa_0 \pa_0 g_{\alpha\beta} | ||
+ | -\pa_\alpha \pa_\beta g_{00}\big) | ||
+ | =-\tfrac12 \pa_0^2 g_{\alpha\beta}.\] | ||
+ | As the curvature tensor is gauge invariant, the last relation allows one to calculate the metric components in the TT gauge $g_{\alpha\beta}^{TT}$ without the prior gauge fixing. | ||
+ | \end{enumerate}</p> | ||
+ | </div> | ||
+ | </div></div> |
Revision as of 14:25, 26 December 2012
From now on we consider only vacuum solutions. Suppose we use the Lorenz gauge. As shown above, we still have the freedom of coordinate transformations with $\square \xi^\mu =0$, which preserve the gauge. So, let us choose some arbitrary (timelike) field $u^\mu$ and, in addition to the Lorenz gauge conditions, demand that the perturbation is also transverse $u^{\mu}\bar{h}_{\mu\nu}=0$ with regard to it plus that it is traceless $\bar{h}^{\mu}_{\mu}=0$. Then $h_{\mu\nu}=\bar{h}_{\mu\nu}$ and we can omit the bars. In the frame of observers with 4-velocity $u^\mu$ the full set of conditions that fix the \emph{transverse traceless (TT) gauge} is then \begin{equation} \pa_\mu {h^{\mu}}_{\nu}=0,\quad h_{0\mu}=0,\quad {h^{\mu}}_{\mu}=0. \end{equation}
Simplest solutions of the vacuum wave equation are plane waves \[h_{\mu\nu}=h_{\mu\nu}e^{ik_{\lambda}x^\lambda}.\] Indeed, substitution into $\square h_{\mu\nu}=0$ yields \[k^{\lambda}k_{\lambda}\cdot h_{\mu\nu}=0.\] Thus
- either the wave vector is null $k^{\lambda}k_{\lambda}=0$, which roughly translates as that gravitational waves propagate with the speed of light,
- or $h_{\mu\nu}=0$, which means that in any other (non-TT) coordinate frame, in which metric perturbation is non-zero, it is due to the oscillating coordinate system, while the true gravitational field vanishes.
\end{itemize}
Contents
Problem 1: Transverse traceless (TT) gauge
Rewrite the gauge conditions for the TT and Lorenz gauge \begin{enumerate} \item in terms of scalar, vector and tensor decomposition; \item in terms of the metric perturbation for the plane wave solution UNIQ-MathJax58-QINU with wave vector UNIQ-MathJax10-QINU directed along the UNIQ-MathJax11-QINU-axis. \end{enumerate}
\begin{enumerate} \item The two algebraic conditions are \begin{align} 0&=u^{\mu}h_{\mu\nu}=h_{0\nu}=(\Phi,-\mathbf{w});\\ 0&=h^{\mu}_{\mu}=\Phi-6\Psi, \end{align} so we get in the new frame \[\Phi=\Psi=0,\quad \mathbf{w}=0.\] Then the remaining Lorenz condition is reduced to \begin{align*} &0=\pa_0 h^0_\nu +\pa_\alpha h^\alpha_\nu ;\\ \nu=0:\quad& 0=0;\\ \nu=\beta:\quad&0= \pa_{\alpha}{s^{\alpha}}_{\beta}, \end{align*} so it takes the form \begin{equation} \pa_{\alpha}{s^{\alpha}}_{\beta}=0. \end{equation} Thus the only remaining non-trivial component of the perturbation is the tensor one (the traceless part) $s_{\alpha\beta}$, and it is transverse, in the sense that for a plane wave solution $s_{\alpha\beta}\sim e^{i\,k_{\mu}x^{\mu}}$ the metric perturbation is transverse with respect to the wave vector: \[k^{\alpha}s_{\alpha\beta}=0.\] \item Transversality implies $h_{\mu 0}=0$, Lorenz gauge condition that $h_{\mu z}=0$, so the only non-zero components are $h_{xx},h_{yy},h_{xy},h_{yx}$. Of those only two are independent due to symmetry $h_{xy}=h_{yx}$ and tracelessness $h_{xx}+h_{yy}=0$. \end{enumerate}
So any plane-wave solution with $k^{\mu}=(\omega,0,0,k)$ in the $z$-direction in the TT gauge has the form
\begin{equation}
h_{\mu\nu}=\bordermatrix{
~&t&x&y&z\cr
t&0&0&0&0\cr
x&0&h_{+}&h_{\times}&0\cr
y&0&h_{\times}&-h_{+}&0\cr
z&0&0&0&0}e^{ikz-i\omega t},
\end{equation}
or more generally any wave solution propagating in the $z$ direction can be presented as
\begin{align}
h_{\mu\nu}(t,z)&=
\bordermatrix{
~&t&x&y&z\cr
t&0&0&0&0\cr
x&0&1&0&0\cr
y&0&0&-1&0\cr
z&0&0&0&0}h_{+}(t-z)
+\bordermatrix{
~&t&x&y&z\cr
t&0&0&0&0\cr
x&0&0&1&0\cr
y&0&1&0&0\cr
z&0&0&0&0}h_{\times}(t-z)=\\
&=e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}h_{+}(t-z)
+e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu}h_{\times}(t-z).
\end{align}
Here $h_{+}$ and $h_\times$ are the amplitudes of the two independent components with linear polarization, and $e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu},e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}$ are the corresponding polarization tensors.
Problem 2: Two polarizations
Show that $e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu}$ and $e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}$ transform into each other under rotation by $\pi/8$
The two-dimensional transformation matrix $\Phi$ for rotation by $\pi/4$ and the polarization tensors are \[\Phi=(x^{\mu}_{,\nu})=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix},\quad (e^{(+)}_{\mu\nu}) =\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&-1\end{pmatrix},\quad (e^{(\times)}_{\mu\nu}) =\begin{pmatrix}0&1\\1&0\end{pmatrix}.\] In matrix notation the second rank tensor transformation law is $e'=\Phi\Phi e$, and acting twice on each of the polarization vectors we have \begin{align*} \Phi\Phi e^{(+)}&=\frac12 \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&-1 \end{pmatrix} =-\begin{pmatrix}0&+1\\1&0 \end{pmatrix} =-e^{(\times)},\\ \Phi\Phi e^{(\times)}&=\frac12 \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}0&+1\\1&0 \end{pmatrix} =+\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&-1 \end{pmatrix} =+e^{(+)}. \end{align*}
Problem 3: Plane wave TT gauge transformation
Consider the plane wave solution of the wave equation in the Lorenz gauge: \[\bar{h}_{\mu\nu} =A_{\mu\nu}e^{i\,k_{\lambda}x^\lambda}, \quad k^\mu k_\mu =0.\] \begin{enumerate} \item Show that the TT gauge is fixed by the coordinate transformation UNIQ-MathJax31-QINU with \begin{align} \xi_{\mu}&=B_{\mu}e^{ik_\lambda x^\lambda};\\ B_{\lambda} &=-\frac{A_{\mu\nu}l^\mu l^\nu} {8i \omega^4}k_\lambda -\frac{A^{\mu}_{\mu}}{4i\omega^2}l_\lambda +\frac{1}{2i\omega^2}A_{\lambda\mu}l^\mu;\\ &\text{where}\quad k^\mu=(\omega,\mathbf{k}),\quad l^{\mu}=(\omega,-\mathbf{k}). \end{align} [Padm. p \textsection 9.3, p.403 (wrong signs!), also see MTW Ex.35.1 for similar formulation; \emph{the solution can probably be derived if we introduce the null frame $k$ and $l$ (the other two spacial basis vectors are not needed) and look for solution in the form $B=C_1 k+ C_2 l +C_{3} w$.}] \item What is the transformation to the Lorenz gauge for arbitrary gravitational wave in vacuum? \end{enumerate}
\begin{enumerate} \item The gauge transformation for UNIQ-MathJax35-QINU and therefore UNIQ-MathJax36-QINU is UNIQ-MathJax63-QINU so \begin{equation} A_{\mu\nu}\to A_{\mu\nu}' =A_{\mu\nu}-2ik_{(\mu}B_{\nu)} +i\eta_{\mu\nu}k_{\lambda}B^\lambda, \end{equation} and the TT gauge conditions take the form \begin{align} 0&={{A'}^{\mu}}_{\mu}={A^{\mu}}_{\mu}+2ik^\mu B_\mu;\\ 0&={A'}_{0\;\mu}=A_{0\mu}-ik_0 B_{\mu} -ik_\mu B_0 +i\delta^0_\mu \; k_\lambda B^\lambda. \end{align} Also remember that Lorenz gauge implies $k_{\mu}A^{\mu\nu}=0$, thus $k^{\alpha}A_{\alpha\mu}=-\omega A_{0\mu}$, and therefore \begin{equation} l^{\mu}k_{\mu}=2\omega^2,\quad A_{\mu\nu}l^{\mu}=2\omega A_{0\mu},\quad k^{\lambda}B_{\lambda} =-\frac{1}{2i}{A^{\lambda}}_{\lambda}. \end{equation} Plugging this into the gauge conditions, one can see that the first one (tracelessness) is obeyed immediately, and the second one (transversality) after a little bit of more algebra. \item The general first-order vacuum solution of Einstein's equations in the Lorenz gauge can be presented through its spatial Fourier transform (temporal part is integrated over due to fixed dispersion relation) \[h_{\mu\nu}(x)=\int d^{3}k h_{\mu\nu}(\mathbf{k}) e^{ik_{\lambda}x^{\lambda}},\quad\text{with}\quad k^\mu k_\mu =0,\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad k_{0}^{2}\equiv \omega^2 =\mathbf{k}^2.\] Then the TT gauge will be fixed by the coordinate fransformation \[\xi^\mu =\int d^{3}k B^{\mu}[h_{\mu\nu}(\mathbf{k})] e^{ik_{\lambda}x^{\lambda}}.\] Working with individual plane-wave solutions is equivalent to working in the full Fourier space. \end{enumerate}
Problem 3: Curvature of a plane wave
Consider the plane-wave solution, in which \[R_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma} =C_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma}e^{ik_{\lambda}x^{\lambda}}.\] \begin{enumerate} \item Using the Bianchi identity, show that all components of the curvature tensor can be expressed through UNIQ-MathJax39-QINU; \item Show that in the coordinate frame such that UNIQ-MathJax40-QINU is directed along the UNIQ-MathJax41-QINU-axis the only possible nonzero components are UNIQ-MathJax42-QINU, UNIQ-MathJax43-QINU and UNIQ-MathJax44-QINU, obeying UNIQ-MathJax45-QINU, leaving only two independent non-zero components; \item in the TT gauge (denoted by the superscript UNIQ-MathJax46-QINU) UNIQ-MathJax67-QINU \end{enumerate} [based on Padm p403].
\begin{enumerate} \item The covariant derivatives in the Bianchi identity UNIQ-MathJax68-QINU in the first order can be replaced by partial derivatives. Then for a plane-wave solution UNIQ-MathJax69-QINU By setting UNIQ-MathJax47-QINU we get (UNIQ-MathJax48-QINU for a null vector) UNIQ-MathJax70-QINU and by setting UNIQ-MathJax49-QINU and using the previous result, that UNIQ-MathJax71-QINU \item From vacuum Einstein equations UNIQ-MathJax72-QINU expressing everything through UNIQ-MathJax50-QINU, we get \begin{align} 00:&\quad R_{0\alpha 0\alpha}=0;\\ 0\beta:&\quad k_{\alpha} R_{0\alpha 0\beta}=0;\\ \beta\gamma:&\quad 0=0. \end{align} The $00$ equation translates to the wave being traceless, and the $0\beta$ equation to it being transverse: in the chosen frame \[R_{0x0x}+R_{0y0y}=0,\qquad R_{0z0\alpha}=0.\] \item In the TT gauge $g_{00}$ and $g_{0\alpha}$ are zero, so in the first order \[R_{0\alpha 0\beta}=\frac{1}{2}\big( \pa_0 \pa_\beta g_{0\alpha} +\pa_\alpha \pa_0 g_{0\beta} -\pa_0 \pa_0 g_{\alpha\beta} -\pa_\alpha \pa_\beta g_{00}\big) =-\tfrac12 \pa_0^2 g_{\alpha\beta}.\] As the curvature tensor is gauge invariant, the last relation allows one to calculate the metric components in the TT gauge $g_{\alpha\beta}^{TT}$ without the prior gauge fixing. \end{enumerate}